Monday, April 20, 2009

Once again!

FW:The term Lord you have used is most definitley taken from scripture. The greek for Lord in this context, if my memory serves me correctly, is Curios. This word means YHWHand has direct correlation with the OT.

mlculwell: The passage says Jesus was made both Lord and Christ(Acts 2:36) and your were quoting me saying: Jesus was made both Lord and Christ because his humanity had a beginning. This passage along with host of others teaches he was made LORD!Because his humanity had a beginning.


FW:So, the logical deduction, if we go by what you have stated above, is that the Son is YHWH. Unfortunatly (for you anyway) YHWH has no begining, just an incarnation.

mlculwell: That incarnation was the beginning of at least one of your sons.LOL! I believe YHWH is in reference to God the father YHWH Only and not a fictitious "god the son".


"The son really prayed as a real man in subjection to his real God!"

FW:If God is unitarian, and the Son is the flesh of God indwelt with God, then the Son would be praying to Himself.
Please explain if this is not the case.

mlculwell: When I pray am I praying to myself also? Real men pray! Not God's! If a God prays he cannot be God as he is lower that God! But of course your Jesus just fakes everything anyhow. You do not even have a glimmer of a viable argument.


"ETERNAL LIFE WAS WITH THE FATHER(God)"


FW:I was speaking about John 1, not 1 John, clearly.

mlculwell: I was speaking of 1st. John 1.

FW:Dodging the question seems to be your area of expertise.

mlculwell: You again had no question of any substance that merited anything but for me to laugh at your argument! You can come up with anything trying to isolate a few Greek words.


FW:The Word was with God. pros ton theon can only mean a personal relationship and contact.

mlculwell That is the very reason I submitted 1st John 1:2 as it says eternal Life was(Pros) with the father. Now if with means a personal relationship then God was having a personal relationship with eternal life! But the fact is that is the word!


FW:The remainder of the Gospel (in conjunction with the synoptics) makes this point clear. We have love displayed between the Son and the Father, communication between two distinct persons, and key phrases such as "into your hands I commit my spirit,Father why have you forsaken me?" and "not my will but your will."

mlculwell: Do you not see how you are contradicting the scriptures by Giving the one God opposing wills? If YHWH is One God he cannot have opposing wills withing himself! I believe the will of Jesus is a human real will and not another will of God! I explained John 17:5 with verse 24 and Rev. 13:8 that the Love was not literal love between persons like Jesus was not literally slain in Rev.13:8 and that the Apostles or disciples at that time were going to witness his glory which can only refer to Jesus passion that was his glory ie his sacrifice for humanity.


"This passage proves all trinitarians are polytheists!"

FW:Hardly. Within the one being that is God, there exists three co-equal co-eternal persons; The Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.

mlculwell: that is an unscriptual mantra of trinitarians not found in scripture. The passage in Philippians 2:5-11 says nothing about "persons" there! According to your interpretation the passage has to do with the pre-incarnate god the son being eqaul to God the father thus your polytheism.





FW: I am not a tritheist. What you have said amounts to slander. To assume that the Son is simply the flesh of God indwelt decimates the atonement and renders it ineffective, (did you read the entirity of the post?)

mlculwell: I will not take anything back I have said about your doctrine it is based on both what you say and what scripture actually says and mean to point that out. God indwelling is what the scripture says In (John 14:10, Col. 2:9, 2nd. Cor.5:19)
But it is not God the son who is incarnate in man the son as you have no real incarnation anyhow but it is God the father in the son.

God was in Christ(2nd. Cor. 5:19) Not God became Christ!

For in him dwelleth all the fullness of the Godhead bodily(Col. 2;9) All that makes God, God was in Christ.

The father in me he doeth the works(John 14:10) as the son could do no works in and of himself.(John 5:30) He did not even know the time of His own second coming but the father ONLY.(Mark13:32) that is because there is nor was anything known as a "God the son."


"FW, you oppose the creeds, and yet the only theology that you have has been created by the Councils recognized by Rome"


mlculwell: I do oppose the creeds! As they should not be put on the same level of scripture if you feel they are maybe they should canonized in scripture!

3 comments:

brian said...

Manny,
This guy is very dishonest--he twists everything you say. Kudos to you for getting him to post here instead of his sight (were he deletes comments he has no answer for or doesnt understand). But outside of divine revelation he is never going to see the Oneness of God!
LD

M. R. Burgos said...

Dishonest I am not. I have provided you with a clear text from Philippians (2:5-8) that defies your doctrine. The passage is clear.The Son in this text is distinguished from the Father, and it was the Son who is described as being active prior to the incarnation. It was the Son who was in the form of God before time began. It was the Son who decided to take on human form. Please reconsider your understanding.

mlculwell said...

The text is clear. What is not clear is your interpretation! It simply contradicts the scripture.

Most certainly the passage is distinguishing the father and son but not as persons of god and the term persons is not even found in the text.The distinction is between the spirit of God and the flesh.

If you interpret the passage as the pre-incarnate God the son and he is equal to God, then you have polytheism. God is equal to God! There is no way around this glaring contradiction in your doctrine.