This is my second hand critique of a Book written by A person who has frequented this blog many times in the past. Having not actually read the book myself, but having heard the boasts on forums about what a "fool proof" argument Burgos has provided toward the Oneness view concerning the Greek word for "with" or the Grk preposition Pros in John 1:1. ( I make the disclaimer: I am no Greek scholar, but I do not have to be to use common sense.)
In Michael R. Burgos’ new Book, "Kiss the Son: A Christological Apology to Response to David K. Bernard’s The Oneness of God?, 2012."
Burgos submits a quote by David Bernard's Book as the above title promises, and submits his own argument.
"The Greek word pros, here translated as ‘with’, is translated as ‘pertaining to’ in Hebrews 2:17 and 5:1. So the Word was with God in the sense of belonging to God and not in the sense of a separate person beside God."
(Burgos cites, The Oneness of God, 1997, 188-189).
Burgos submits:“The above assertion is incorrect for a number of reasons” (Ibid. 58).Burgos then says:
"The reason why pros is translated as “pertaining to” in both of the
texts in Hebrews is because pros is immediately preceded by the
accusative neuter plural article “ta” (trans. “things”).
(Ibid. 59).
(Ibid. 59).
I would also make the bold claim for a number of reasons that Burgos has ran down a rabbit hole and has given this absolutely no thought for many reasons on many levels.
The first question I would ask Burgos is that why did William Tyndale( Trinitarian) translate the word/Logos as an it?
"The Tyndale New Testament of 1525 was the first English translation based on the Greek and the first English Bible to be printed."
Tyndale (1494–1536) It was Tyndale's translation of the Greek "autou" meaning; "he, she, or it." depending upon the context... Tyndale Handling God's word more carefully, and with great care did not with bias read "the Pre-incarnate Christ" Back into John 1:1-3 and impose his own belief which; leaves something to be said for the Modern Trinitarian.
"All things were made by it, and without it, was made nothing that was made. In it was life, and the life was the light of men." (John1:1-3 Tyndale)
" Things." Are things an "it"? Tyndale thought so. Is this my argument you ask? No, It most certainly is not my argument, but it is one that Burgos should have considered from one of his own. More than Likely he would say that today's scholars have more ancient documents and are better suited to translate. He, she, or it, would be determined by context. John is speaking from a knowing a experience of a person whom he handled and seen.(1st John 1:1-3) That is what Burgos and modern trinitarians read back into the text of John 1 with the pronoun *he* later. I would say it is just an excuse to read doctrine back into the word of God.
I always Like to ask the question to the Trinitarian; "Why was not the word/Logos with Jesus"? If Jesus were in fact God, would not the word be with him? If not, why not? what was God, doing with God, if there is only One God. These are questions trinity doctrine ignore. Burgos book simply brings about more questions and contradictions for his doctrine.
Jesus is the God to whom the word is with.The incarnation makes Jesus God in flesh; to whom the word is with.
We read a prophecy of the coming Jesus in judgment: The word/Logos is the spoken creative power of God to heal, judge, and create. God cannot be separated from that power.
but with righteousness shall he judge the poor, and reprove with equity for the meek of the earth: and he shall smite the earth with the rod his mouth. and with the breath of his lips shall he slay the wicked.( Isaiah 11:4 KJV)
(Remember the beatitudes while reading this?)
And out of his mouth proceedeth a sharp sword, that with it he should smite the nations: and he shall rule them with a rod of iron: and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness of the wrath of God, the Almighty.(Revelation 19:15 American Standard Version)
And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will overthrow with the breath of his mouth and destroy by the splendor of his coming.(ii Thessalonians 2:8 NIV)
At the breath of God they are destroyed; at the blast of his anger they perish(Job 4:9 NIV)
The rest of them were killed with the sword that came out of the mouth of the rider on the horse, and all the birds gorged themselves on their flesh. (Revelation 19:21 NIV)
By the word/Logos of the LORD were the heavens made and all the host of them by the breath of his mouth.(Psalm 33:6 Grk Septuagint))
So in summary: I do not believe that Michael Burgos has submitted anything earth shattering with his argument.. The so called argument is simply an emotional ploy, for those who believe the word/Logos was the pre-existent son of God. This debate is far from over and i am very happy with the stance we take against the trinity view of John 1:1.
Works cited
Michael R. Burgos’ new Book, "Kiss the Son: A Christological Apology Response to David K. Bernard’s The Oneness of God?, 2012."
- Publisher: CreateSpace Independent Publishing Platform
- Publication date: 10/24/2012
- Pages: 150
The Oneness of God, David K Bernard 1997, Word Aflame Press (188-189).
William Tyndale A biography David Daniell Publisher: Yale University Press (March 1, 2001)
2 comments:
Ive noticed that of the 330 times "logos" is translated it is never translated as "son". There is a reason for this that trinitarians refuse to see.
I got this from Mounce Basics of biblical Greek.
page 101 Mounce" If the antecedent is not personal, autos follows a grammatical gender. So, for
example,if the antecedent is world Greek will use the masculine form of the pronoun (autos). However, you would not translate autos as he but as “it.” We think of the world not as a he but as an it."
Trinitarain's force the word as another person of God.
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