The first six questions of 60 questions on the Godhead

I attempted to answer some questions a trinitarain gave in reference
to Oneness tract that has been in circulation for may years. 60
questions on the Godhead or something to that effect, I do not reacall
the actual title. These are just the first six, Hopefully I will
answer more at my leisure and submit them to my blog.


Fred Shewmaker's answer to the Oneneness own question


Manuel Culwell's Answers to Fred Shewmaker




Oneness Question #1. "Is the word trinity in the Bible? No"

Fred Shewmaker
a. There is a difference between believing there are three who possess
deity and holding one of the positions recognized by theology as
trinity doctrine. Each of those positions is loaded down with baggage
which many who believe there are three who possess Godhead are
unwilling to carry.
b. The word trinity is not in the Bible neither was "prodigal" prior
to the publication of the New King James Version in 1979, but I dare
say the author of the questions prior to 1979 did not object to using
the word "prodigal".


mlculwell: "Three who possess Godhead"? The scripture teach the
Godhead(That which makes up God )All the Fullness of that; which makes
God, God, was In the man Jesus. Nothing was ever said by the tract
that Shewmaker attempted to answer or do we even find the idea in
scripture, it is a man made tradition. The tract asked a simple
question and answered that question Shewmaker felt the need to
interject his man made doctrine to try and make it relevant.





Oneness #2. "Does the Bible say that there are three persons in the
Godhead? No"

Shewmaker
It does not. The Bible simply identifies three who possess Godhead.


mlculwell: Three what? Three Gods? Three persons? Again This is
presumed dogma forced upon the scriptures.The bible says All the
fullness of the Godhead is in Him. There is only two more passage In
the KJB that uses the term and one of those says *HIS* eternal Power
and Godhead are without excuse being understood by those things which
are made. nothing ever even remotely says what Mr. shewmaker has put
forth.




Oneness #3. "Does the Bible speak of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost? Yes"

Fred Shewmaker
In ways which show that they are not the same being.

mlculwell: Mr. Shewmaker contradicts Trinity doctrine. Usually the
trinity doctrine teaches God is One being made of three persons. Jesus
was both a real 100% human being and the real 1oo% being Known as God.



Oneness #4. "Do these titles as used in Matthew 28:19 mean that there
are three separate and distinct persons in the Godhead? No, they refer
to three offices, roles, or relationships to humanity."


Fred Shewmaker:
a. Neither Father nor Son is the title of an office and therefore
there is no reason to think that Holy Spirit is such a title.

mlculwell: Nor does my relationship titles toward my family make me
"three persons of God". Mr. Shewmaker assumes, so we feel it only
right to do the same thing to show the ridiculousness of what he has
presented.


Mr. Shewmaker
b. The Bible does not use the word office, role nor relationships when
referring to any connection which the Father, Son or Holy Spirit have
with humanity.

Mlculwell: The fact of the matter is the Trinitarian's have no real
relationship within there view of the Father and Son except in name
only, (it is pretend, as the son is as old *eternal* as his daddy.)the
real result of their view would be more akin to eternal conjoined
twins and even more so, triplets.

Mr. Shewmaker
c. Matthew 28:19 deals with "the name of the Father and of the Son and
of the Holy Spirit," not offices, roles nor relationships to humanity.

mlculwell: (Matth. 28:19) does not deal with the single name of those
three titles.Luke also has an account of the great commission in Luke
124:47





Oneness #5. Does the Bible use the word three in reference to God?
Only one verse in the entire Bible does so-1 John 5:7. It speaks of
the Father, the Word (instead of Son), and the Holy Ghost, and it
concludes by saying, "These three are one."

Mr. Shewmaker
Due to the fact John wrote this, he should be an acceptable authority
regarding the meaning of the word "one." In John 17:21 he quoted Jesus
as praying for His apostles, "that they may be one, as You, Father,
[are] in Me, and I in You; that they also may be one in Us, that the
world may believe that You sent Me." Unless you think that Jesus was
praying for His apostles to become one being, we acknowledge that
"these three are one" does not mean they were/are a single being.

Mlculwell: We are told the son was in the father and the Apostles
would be in Jesus(as Jesus was going to be that spirit John
14:16-18,2nd Cor.3:17, Acts 2:36, ) the plural pronoun" Us" to whom
Jesus made claim concerning the father and son had nothing to do with
"multiple persons of God", but rather the spirit of God Joined to the
flesh of the son as One person, the same unity the Apostles were soon
to enjoy on the first Pentecost after the resurrection, although more
limited .(John 3:34,Eph. 4:7)




Oneness #6. "Does the Bible use the word one in reference to God? Yes,
many times. For example, see Zechariah 14:9; Malachi 2:10, Matthew
23:29, 32; John 8:41; 10:30; Romans 3:30; 1 Corinthians 8:4; Galatians
3:20; 1 Timothy 2:5; James 2:19."


Mr.Shewmaker:

a. Zechariah 14:9 does not even use the word God. It uses the word
LORD twice. What it teaches is that "'Yahweh is one' And His name
one." Yahweh (singular) is the Hebrew name of eloheem (plural) who in
the beginning created the heavens and the earth.


mlculwell: *The Plural of Attributes* not of "persons". In other
words, our one God who is all powerful.



Mr.Shewmaker:
Deuteronomy 4:35 and other Old Testament passages explain that "the
LORD (Yahweh - singular) Himself is God (eloheem - plural) there is
none other besides Him." Yahweh (Jehovah, LORD) is the singular name
of a plurality eloheem (God). The biblical doctrine of one God refers
either to the one plurality eloheem or to the singular Yahweh which is
the name of the one plurality eloheem.

mlculwell: This is the trinitaraian explanation of One God that has
been put forth as to not violate the strict monotheism that is seen in
scripture.The Hebrew word Elohim has absolutely nothing to do with
plurality of persons that is simply submitted as a plausible
explanation so that the tradition can continue. Satan/lucifer is also
called elohim are there more than one satan/lucifer?In reference to
satan he is neither a plural persons nor of all powerful
attributes.The term is not used in reference to multiple persons of God.




Mr. shewmaker:
b. Malachi 2:10 will be addressed when consideration is given to
question 14.
c. In Matthew 22:32 the word God is translated from the Greek word
theos. Matthew there quotes Exodus 3:6. In Exodus 3:6 the word God is
translated from the plural Hebrew word eloheem. There is one plurality
named Yahweh. Theos may refer either to separate beings of that
plurality or to the plurality as a unit.

mlculwell: Again, Mr. Shewmaker simply inserts his understanding of
the plural for God and assumes it is a plural of persons because it
fitss nicely with his doctrine.




Mr. Shewmaker:
d. John 8:41 "one Father--God" is not the same as saying one God. This
verse only shows the nature of the "one Father" to whom they referred
wah not that of man, but rather that of "God." Theos refers to one
being of the plurality - eloheem - "Father."
e. Regarding John 10:30 consider John 17:21. More later on this.

mlculwell:Let us go ahead and consider this now,the point being, that
God is in us, and the Apostles, in unity as one spirit, but that does
not make a plurality of "persons of God" no more than the Apostles
being joined in unity makes a plurality of God? One preacher asked; if
that is the same unity are we not God? Most certainly not! It is my
contention that God is in us in unity the same way that he is in Jesus
in unity, as a real human being, or man, but let me be clear, Jesus is
not another person of God. Well, then how would it be different and
Jesus still be God manifest in the flesh? The scriptures Teach the
Unity of the father and son is that God giveth not the spirit by
measure unto him(John 3:34) as Jesus humanity had a beginning and did
not exist from all eternity, therefor it is scriptural to say *God
gave* as in (Matth. 28:19) or *God made* in reference to Jesus as In
(Acts 2:36, 1st Cor. 15:45) as the Limited man could not do any of
those things or give or be made anything. The scriptures teach that
the spirit Given to the humanity of the son in the incarnation was
none other than God the father (John 14:10) the father that dwelleth
in me he doeth the works.