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                                           From a site Titled Jesus and His God.
             Some form of Arian doctrine answering the Oneness view of John 3:34

You can read the original article Here . 

 The writer from the article that I linked to above submits the following passages with his commentary:

The writer says the following to contradict my argument Jesus is the one true God because of John 3:34:

 "That God has given “all things” into his hand does not mean that Jesus is or became his God who has put all things in his hand, since, as Paul says, “it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him.” (1 Corinthians 15:27)  Additionally, it should be apparent that if the “all things” spoken of here were put into the hands of Jesus, then Jesus did not have this authority/power of himself, but it is “given” to him, which shows that Jesus is not God Almighty. “Who has first given to me, that I should repay him? Everything under the heavens is mine,” says Yahweh. (Job 41:11; Romans 11:35; see 1 Chronicles 29:11,12; John 10:29; 14:28) Thus through this, as well as many other scriptures, the holy spirit reveals that Jesus is not Yahweh."

I suppose the writer puts up the article as a rebuttal to Oneness thinking of the one found in John 3:34 to prove Jesus is God and that the passages they submit as a rebuttal are not known by the Oneness adherents. I can assure the writer they are known and have been dealt with at length from this writer and other writers. In context the way we would understand them is that Jesus as a genuine lower man did not pre-exist his birth as another person of God or son.

. There is only one true God the Father who existed before his son as that is how a father and son relationship works, but I do see in your post you contradicted yourself at the end of the post and proved my argument by saying :
“that only true God would already have his Holy Spirit without measure, and would not need to be given the holy spirit at all.”
Yes exactly! Thank you! God was not given anything the man was by no measure and because God has the Holy Spirit by no measure that is what makes Him God! Because God gave his spirit to his son or the genuine man that made Him God. Once more men have a measure of the spirit God does not!

"The claim has been made that we are presenting “problems where none exist“, since no one is claiming that anything is given to “God”. If this is true, then Jesus is not God, nor can he become God, since to become God would mean that Jesus was never given anything. See: Ephesians 5:27 –Jesus Presents the Church to Himself".

No The claim has not been made that "you are presenting problems where none exist". The claim is being made you contradicted yourself immediately upon trying to answer my argument. Once more on your site you said" God would have his Holy Spirit by no measure and made my very point.

God gave his only begotten(Sired and born son) His own one Spirit by no measure making him God in flesh because he had origin in the virgin birth, in other words; he did not pre-exist as another person of God.

As for 1st Cor.15:27 all things would be given into his(The sons) hands as he would not be able to give to himself anymore than I as a genuine man would be able to give to myself. Jesus was still limited until the last enemy was put under his feet that passage says and then God would be all in all. Eph. 5:27 elaborates further in saying that he presents the ekklisia(The kingdom, the church) to himself.